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Originally Posted by Norma J
No. Either can be used in that particular sentence.
Your friend, dictionary.com:
Bias: A particular tendency or inclination, esp. one that prevents unprejudiced consideration of a question; prejudice.
Biased: A particular tendency or inclination, esp. one that prevents unprejudiced consideration of a question; prejudice.
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You do know the difference between a noun (that's when they put a little
n. before the definition) and an adjective (that's when they put
adj. before the definition)?
You also know that 'bias' is the noun and 'biased' is the adjective? So it's either "you have bias because..." or "You are biased because...".
I'm from where the language comes from, does that make a difference to anything?
Edit: In all fairness, dictionarydotcom doesn't make this entirely clear, although you'd have to be a complete retard to not know the difference. I generally refer to the OED rather than dicitonarydotcom, on account of not trusting American English.